Right, sorry if I seem to be ranting on (and on) about the same thing but I read the following statement on the BBC this evening:
"Adebayor has also been charged with reacting aggressively and failing to leave the field of play immediately."
So just to reiterate, he was charged for the above reasons - so what does that have to do with a red card? Why did he get that red card? Why was that appeal dismissed? The above charges are because of the receipt of the red card aren't they? Doesn't that mean that if he did not get carded he would not have
a. reacted aggressively; and
b. failed to leave the pitch immediately???
Sometimes (more often than not) I really don't get the FA.
Nevertheless, the lad has ample time to contest it (until March 14th) and has the right to a personal trial...although it would be much more appropriate for him to be concentrating on the premiership and champions league titles at the moment...but I won't go there...
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